Question1: What term describes assurance that a product or service will meet its agreed requirements?
Question2: What are the two MAJOR activities in problem management?
Question3: As a strategic tool for assessing the value of IT services, Financial Management applies to which of the following service provider types?
(1) An internal service provider embedded within a business unit
(2) An internal service provider that provides shared IT services
(3) An external service provider
Question4: Which is an objective of the design coordination process?
Question5: Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact?
Question6: Which of the following are sources of best practice?
1. Academic research
2. Internal experience
3. Industry practices
Question7: Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?
Question8: What is the objective of Access Management?
Question9: Which statement about service review meetings is FALSE?
Question10: Which of the following should IT service continuity strategy be based on?
1. Design of the service metrics
2. Business continuity strategy
3. Business impact analysis (BIA)
4. Risk assessment
Question11: In service design, which term describes services, technologies and tools?
Question12: What BEST describes the value of service transition to the business?
Question13: Which term describes if a service is fit for use?
Question14: The positive effect that customers perceive a service can have on their business outcomes is referred to as what?
Question15: Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service level agreement (SLA)?
Question16: Which is an objective of the service design lifecycle stage?
Question17: Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
Question18: The multi-level SLA' is a three-layer structure. Which one of the following layers is NOT part of this type of SLA?
Question19: Which of the following is NOT a source of best practice?
Question20: Where would all the possible service improvement opportunities be recorded?
Question21: Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
Question22: Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
Question23: Which of these is NOT a responsibility of Application Management?
Question24: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?
Question25: Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?
Question26: Which is NOT a purpose of a Product Description?
Question27: "Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production" is a purpose of which part of the Service Lifecycle?
Question28: Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?
1. Core
2. Enabling
3. Special
Question29: An incident is proving difficult to resolve. A technician informs their manager that more resource is needed to restore the service.
What has taken place?
Question30: Remediation planning is a key part of which process?
Question31: Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing Service Transition?
(1) Ability to adapt quickly to new requirements
(2) Reduced cost to design new services
(3) Improved success in implementing changes
Question32: What are the categories of events described in the ITIL service operation book?
Question33: How is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider organization?
Question34: Which of the following identifies the purpose of design coordination?
Question35: Which of the following is one of the primary objectives of Service Strategy?
Question36: Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process?
Question37: Which of the following are CORRECT Service Design Aspects?
1. Service Solutions for new or changed services
2. Management policies and guidelines
3. Business requirements technology and management architectures
4. Process requirements technology and management architectures
Question38: Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
Question39: Which of the following are aspects of Service Design?
(1) Architectures
(2) Technology
(3) Service Management processes
(4) Metrics
Question40: In which of the following areas would ITIL complementary guidance provide assistance?
1. Adapting best practice for specific industry sectors
2. Integrating ITIL with other operating models
Question41: Which process is primarily supported by the analysis of Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
Question42: What does the term "Wisdom" represent within the Data-to-Information-to-Knowledge-to-Wisdom (DIKW)?
Question43: What is most likely to cause a loss of faith in the Service Level Management process?
Question44: Which reason describes why ITIL is so successful?
Question45: Which statement about the known error database (KEDB) is CORRECT?
Question46: The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?
Question47: Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on the relationships between components of the IT infrastructure?
Question48: Which of the following are objectives of Service Design?
(1) Design Services to satisfy business objectives.
(2) Identify and manage risk.
(3) Design effective and efficient processes
(4) Design a secure and resilient IT infrastructure.
Question49: Which one of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?
Question50: Which of the following activities are performed by a desk?
1. Logging details of incidents and service requests
2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3. Restoring service
4. Implementing all standard changes
Question51: What BEST defines roles and responsibilities in relation to process and activities?
Question52: Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers?
Question53: What should be documented as part of every process?
Question54: Ensuring that the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the services are maintained to the levels agreed on the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is the responsibility of which role?
Question55: Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?
Question56: Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items (Cis)?
(1) Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems
(2) Assessing the impact of proposed Changes
(3) Planning and designing a Change to an existing service
(4) Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade
Question57: Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?
1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful
2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment
3. Support the creation of a portfolio of quantified services
Question58: Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre?
Question59: Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
Question60: Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?
(1) Known Error Data
(2) Change Schedules
(3) Service Knowledge Management System
(4) The output from monitoring tools
Question61: Which one of the following answers shows two of the activities relating to tools that will take place during the transition stage of the service lifecycle?
Question62: Which process has the purpose to ensure that, by managing the risks could seriously affect IT services, the IT service provider can always provide minimum agreed business-related service levels?
Question63: What are customers of IT services who work in the same organization as the service provider known as?
Question64: Which one of the following generates demand for services?
Question65: Which is used to assess business demand for services?
Question66: The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
Question67: Which one of the following statements BEST describes a definitive media library (DML)?
Question68: Which capacity management sub-process focuses on the management, control and prediction of the end- to-end performance?
Question69: Which one of the following is the BEST description of a major incident?
Question70: A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
Question71: A Service design package (SDP) would normally be produced for which of the following?
1. A new IT service
2. A major change to an IT service
3. An emergency change to an IT service
4. An IT service retirement
Question72: Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and efficient use of:
Question73: Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?
Question74: Which statement about stakeholders is TRUE?
Question75: Which Problem Management activity helps to ensure that the true nature of the problem can be easily traced and meaningful management information can be obtained?
Question76: Which of the following are included within Release and Deployment Models?
(1) Roles and responsibilities
(2) Template release and deployment
(3) Supporting systems, tools and procedures.
(4) Handover activities and responsibilities
Question77: The Supplier Management process includes:
(1) Service Design activities, to ensure that contracts will be able to support the service requirements (2) Service Operation activities, to monitor and report supplier achievements (3) Continual Improvement activities, to ensure that suppliers continue to meet or exceed the needs of the business
Question78: Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
Question79: Which of the following BEST describes technical management?
Question80: Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Question81: The definitive media library is the responsibility of:
Question82: Which of the following models would be MOST useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
Question83: Which process has the following objective "Establish new or changed services into supported environments within the predicted cost, time and resource estimates"?
Question84: What are sources of best practice?
Question85: Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?
(1) Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements
(2) Designing the service so it can meet the targets
(3) Ensuring all needed contracts and agreements are in place
Question86: Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfillment?
Question87: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Question88: Which is the correct combination of items that makes up an IT service?
Question89: Which of the following statements about service asset and configuration management is/are CORRECT?
1. A configuration item (CI) can exits as part of any numbers other CIs at the same time
2. Choosing which CIs to record will depend on the level of control an organization wishes to exert.
Question90: What are the three service provider business models?
Question91: What BEST defines serviceability?
Question92: Which one of the following is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?
Question93: The BEST processes to automate are those that are:
Question94: Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority?
Question95: Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be gathered and analyzed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question "Did we get there?"
Question96: Which statement about Business Cases is TRUE?
Question97: Which of the following is NOT defined as part of every process?
Question98: What is the primary focus of business capacity management?
Question99: What BEST describes the value of service operation to the business?
Question100: Which stage of the service lifecycle includes the scope of service retirement and transfer of services between service providers?
Question101: What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle?
Question102: Which of the following questions does the guidance in service strategy help to answer?
(1) What services should we offer and to whom?
(2) How do we differentiate ourselves from competing alternatives?
(3) How do we create value for our customers?
Question103: Which of the following provides the PRIMARY source of guidance on what needs to be protected by information security management?
Question104: Access Management is closely related to which other processes?
Question105: Which model delivers a view of the services, assets and infrastructure?
Question106: Effective Service Transition can significantly improve a service provider's ability to handle high volumes of what?
Question107: Which types of communication would the functions within service operation use?
1. Communication between data centre shifts
2. Communication related to changes
3. Performance reporting
4. Routine operational communication
Question108: Which one of the following is the BEST definition of reliability?
Question109: Which role is accountable for the operational management of a process?
Question110: Which is the CORRECT list of metrics to support CSI activities?
Question111: Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?
Question112: Which phase of the ITIL lifecycle provides the following benefit: The Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) of a service can be minimized if all aspects of the service, the processes and the technology are considered during development?
Question113: Which stage of service lifecycle has the purpose of aligning IT services with the changing business needs by identifying improvements to IT services?
Question114: An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer.
What imbalance does this represent?
Question115: Which two elements of financial management for IT services are mandatory?
Question116: Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits?
Question117: Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) are both elements of what larger entity?
Question118: Which of the following would NOT be contained in a release policy?
Question119: Which of the following is commonly found in a contract underpinning an IT service?Financial arrangements related to the contract Description of the goods or service provided Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties
Question120: Which of the following defines the level of protection in Information Security Management?
Question121: What is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)?
Question122: Which is the CORRECT list of the three levels of a multi-level service level agreement (SLA)?
Question123: Which of the following would be most useful in helping to implement a workaround as quickly as possible?
Question124: Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management process?
Question125: Where should all master copies of controlled software and documentation be stored?
Question126: Which three types of metric support Continual Service Improvement (CSI) activities?
Question127: Which of the following activities would be performed by a process manager?
1. Monitoring and reporting on process performance
2. Identifying improvement opportunities
3. Appointing people to required roles
Question128: Which is the CORRECT activity to carry out the "How do we get there" phase of the Continual Service improvement approach?
Question129: Who has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular basis?
Question130: "Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services". These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following?
Question131: Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
Question132: Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
Question133: What is the Service Pipeline?
Question134: Which statement about the service portfolio is TRUE?
Question135: Which process or function is responsible for the Definitive Media Library and Definitive Spares?
Question136: Which is a reason why incident management interfaces with service level management?
Question137: Which of the following are within the scope of service asset and configuration management?
1. Identification of configuration items (CIs)
2. Recording relationships between CIs
3. Recording and control of virtual CIs
4. Approving finance for the purchase of software to support service asset and configuration management
Question138: Which of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?
Question139: Which of the following are managed by facilities management?
1. Hardware within a data centre or computer room
2. Applications
3. Power and cooling equipment
4. Recovery sites
Question140: Which process analyses services that are no longer viable and when they should be retired?
Question141: The goal of which process is: "To improve the quality of management decision making by ensuring that reliable and secure information and data is available throughout the lifecycle"?
Question142: What is a RACI model used for?
Question143: How is a service delivered between departments of the same organization classified?
Question144: Which areas of service management can benefit from automation?
1. Design and modeling
2. Reporting
3. Pattern recognition and analysis
4. Detection and monitoring
Question145: Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?
1. Enabling
2. Core
3. Enhancing
4. Computer
Question146: What is the BEST definition of a definitive media library?
Question147: When tan a known error record tie raised?
(1) At any time when it would be useful to do so
(2) After a workaround has been found
Question148: Identify the input to the Problem Management process.
Question149: How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
Question150: What should a release policy include?
Question151: Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of a Release Unit?
Question152: Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
Question153: Which process would maintain policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processes?
Question154: Which is a definition of a risk cause?
Question155: In the phrase "People, Processes, Products and Partners". Products refers to:
Question156: Which process analyzes services that are no longer viable and determines when they should be retired?
Question157: Access management is closely related to which other process?
Question158: Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?
Question159: What is the type of notification that should be sent when a threshold has been reached, something has changes or a failure has occurred?
Question160: Which is NOT a service desk type described in the ITIL service operation guidance?
Question161: Which process lists "Understanding patterns of business activity" as a major role?
Question162: Which is a recommended response type to respond to either a threat or an opportunity?
Question163: Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?
Question164: What is the act of transforming resources and capabilities into valuable service better known as?
Question165: Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?
Question166: When should tests for a new service be designed?
Question167: Which statement BEST describes the stakeholders in service management?
Question168: Which of the following can include steps that will help to resolve an incident?
1. Incident model
2. Known error record
Question169: Which Functions are included in IT operations management?
Question170: Implementation of IT1L service management requires the preparation and planning of the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps." What are these four Ps?
Question171: What BEST defines IT service management?
Question172: Which is an example of improving service utility using service management automation?
Question173: Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes and relationships relating to components of the IT infrastructure?
Question174: Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service request?
Question175: Where should the definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) be stored and protected?
Question176: Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?
Question177: Which of the following would be defined as part of every process?
(1) Roles
(2) Activities
(3) Functions
(4) Responsibilities
Question178: Which of the following statements describes the objectives of service asset and configuration management?
1. To identify, control, report and verify service assets and configuration items (CIs)
2. To account for, manage and protect the integrity of service assets and configuration items
3. To establish and maintain an accurate and complete configuration management system
4. To document all security controls together with their operation and maintenance
Question179: IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on:
(1) Design of the service technology
(2) Business continuity strategy
(3) Business Impact Analysis
(4) Risk assessment
Question180: Which of the following does the Availability Management process include?
(1) Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets
(2) Monitoring and reporting actual availability
(3) Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability goals
Question181: Which is NOT an example of a pattern of business activity (PBA)?
Question182: Which statement BEST describes the value of service strategy to the business?
Question183: Which tool helps with defining accountability and responsibility within processes?
Question184: What is defined as the ability of a service, component or configuration item (CI) to perform its agreed function when required?
Question185: Service Design emphasizes the importance of the 'Four Ps'. Which of the following is a correct list of these
'Four Ps'?
Question186: Which stage of the change management process deals with what should be done if the change is unsuccessful?
Question187: A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:
Question188: Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of underpinning contracts?
Question189: What is a characteristic of a process?
Question190: Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing service transition?
1. Better reuse and sharing of assets across projects and resources
2. Reduced cost to design new services
3. Result in higher volume of successful changes
Question191: Which problem management activity ensures that a problem can be easily tracked and management information can be obtained?
Question192: What are the publications that provide guidance specific to industry sectors and organization types known as?
Question193: Where are the details of core and enhancing services provided?
Question194: Which of the following processes are performed by the service desk?
1. Capacity management
2. Request fulfillment
3. Demand management
4. Incident management
Question195: Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
Question196: Which of the following items would commonly be on the agenda for a change advisory board (CAB)?
1. Details of failed changes
2. Updates to the change schedule
3. Reviews of completed changes
Question197: Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organization?
Question198: Which of the following is the BEST definition of a Risk?
Question199: What BEST describes the purpose of analyzing risk?
Question200: There are four types of metrics that can be used to measure the capability and performance of processes.
Which of the four metrics is missing from the list below?
(1) Progress
(2) Effectiveness
(3) Efficiency
(4) ?
Question201: In which of the following situations should a Problem Record be created?
Question202: Which of the following should NOT be a concern of Risk Management?
Question203: What is the primary focus of the business management?
Question204: Which of the following should be done when closing an incident?
1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary
2. Check that the user is satisfied with the outcome
Question205: Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented?
Question206: Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function?
Question207: Which of the following is an objective/are objectives of the service strategy stage of the service lifecycle?
1. Providing an understanding of what strategy is
2. Ensuring a working relationship between the customer and service provider
3. Defining how value is created
Question208: Which is one of the five aspects of service design?
Question209: Which one of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in service asset and configuration management?
Question210: Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the Business Lifecycle is part of which process?
Question211: Which one of the following activities is NOT part of the Deming Cycle?
Question212: Which process is responsible to provide and maintain accurate information on all services that are being transitioned or have been transitioned to the live environment?
Question213: Which part of ITIL provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments and organizational strategies?
Question214: What are Request Models used for?
Question215: Which stage of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach is BEST described by the phrase
'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision'?
Question216: Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?
(1) Risk assessment
(2) Testing of resilience mechanisms
(3) Monitoring of component availability
Question217: Which of the following would be carried out as part of a post-project benefits review?
Question218: Which is an objective of access management?
Question219: What is the BEST description of an external customer?
Question220: What BEST describes an important principle of communication in service operation?
Question221: What is an objective of event management?
Question222: Which one of the following is an objective of release and deployment management?
Question223: What is a service delivered between two business units in the same organization known as?
Question224: Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?
Question225: A configuration model can be used to help
(1) Assess the impact and cause of incidents and problems
(2) Assess the impact of proposed changes
(3) Plan and design new or changed services
(4) Plan technology refresh and software upgrades
Question226: What type of record should you raise when a problem diagnosis is complete and a workaround is available?
Question227: Which is the CORRECT description of an outcome?
Question228: Gathering data, monitoring performance and assessing metrics in order to facilitate service improvements are all activities associated with which part of the service lifecycle?
Question229: Which of the following are goals of Service Operation?
(1) To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to the business
(2) The successful release of services into the live environment
Question230: Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?
Question231: Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?
Question232: Which one of the following would NOT involve event management?
Question233: Which of the following is an example of self-help capabilities?
Question234: Which one of the following activities would be performed by access management?
Question235: What are the processes within Service Operation?
Question236: What are customers of an IT service provider who purchase services in terms of a legally binding contract known as?
Question237: Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle?
Question238: Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?
1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function
Question239: In terms of adding value to the business, which one of the following describes service operation s contribution?
Question240: Which one of the following is it the responsibility of supplier management to negotiate and agree?
Question241: Which one of the following is an objective of service transition?
Question242: Which of the following statement about the service owner is INCORRECT?
Question243: What processes represent the scope of financial management for IT services?
Question244: Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during Release and Deployment?
Question245: Which process has the following objective, 'Produce service design packages (SDPs) based on service charters and change requests'?
Question246: From the perspective of the service provider, who is the person or group that agrees their service targets?
Question247: A known error has been created after diagnosis of a problem was complete but before a workaround has been found. Is this a valid approach?
Question248: Which one of the following is NOT an objective of problem management?
Question249: Which of these should a change model include?
1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change
2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4. Complaints procedures
Question250: Which of the following is not a service desk type recognized in the service operation volume of ITIL?
Question251: Order the following continual service improvement (CSI) implementation steps into the correct sequence in alignment with the plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) model.
(1) Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives.
(2) Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being achieved.
(3) Identify the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI.
(4) Decision on implementation of further enhancement.
Question252: Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration Management?
Question253: In Service Operation, if too much emphasis is placed on 'Stability', what might the likely outcome be in terms of responsiveness to customer needs?
Question254: Access management is responsible for executing the policies that are defined in which process?
Question255: Which of the following would commonly be in a contract underpinning an IT service?
(1) Marketing information
(2) Contract description and scope
(3) Responsibilities and dependencies
Question256: Understanding the level of risk during and after change and providing confidence in the degree of compliance with governance requirements during change are both ways of adding business value through which part of the service lifecycle?
Question257: Which of the following would be examined by a major problem review?
1. Things that were done correctly
2. Things that were done incorrectly
3. How to prevent recurrence
4. What could be done better in the future
Question258: Which of the following processes contributes MOST to quantifying the financial value of IT services to the business?
Question259: The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
Question260: Which ITIL process is used to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible?
Question261: Who is responsible for defining metrics for change management?
Question262: What is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?
Question263: Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of service catalogue management?
Question264: Which of the following BEST describes an operational level agreement (OLA)?
Question265: When is it confirmed if a project's objectives have been achieved?
Question266: Which one of the following activities does application management perform?
Question267: Which of the following is an example of proactive problem management?
Question268: Which of the following are valid parts of the service portfolio?
1. Service pipeline
2. Service knowledge management system (SKMS)
3. Service catalogue
Question269: Which of the following availability management activities is/are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?
1. Monitoring system availability
2. Designing availability into a proposed solution
Question270: Which is an example of an internal customer?
Question271: In which core ITIL publication can you find detailed descriptions of service catalogue management, information security management, and supplier management?
Question272: Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?
Question273: Which of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool?
Question274: Which one of the following is the purpose of service level management?
Question275: In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
Question276: Which role is responsible for sponsoring, designing and change managing a process and its metrics?
Question277: Remediation planning is BEST described in which of the following ways?
Question278: Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of:
Question279: Which of these recommendations is best practice for service level management?
1. Include legal terminology in service level agreements (SLAs)
2. It is NOT necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA
Question280: Which of the following is the BEST definition of an event?
Question281: Which process would seek to understand levels of customer satisfaction and communicate what action plans have been put in place to deal with dissatisfaction?
Question282: Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?
Question283: Which of the following identifies the purpose of service transition planning and support?
Question284: Which stage of the service lifecycle has the purpose of looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness?
Question285: Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Question286: Which statement about change management is CORRECT?
Question287: Customer perceptions and business outcomes help lo define what?
Question288: In which of the following should details of a workaround be documented?
Question289: The difference between a Service Level Agreement (SLA) and an Operational Level Agreement (OLA) is that:
Question290: Which of the following statements about incident reporting and logging is CORRECT?
Question291: Which one of the following do major incidents require?
Question292: Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralized service desk?
Question293: Which of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue is the MOST CORRECT?
Question294: Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities?
Question295: What is the PRIMARY process for strategic communication with the service provider's customers?
Question296: Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities?
Question297: Which processes are responsible for the regular review of underpinning contracts?
Question298: Which of the following is NOT an objective of the operations management function?
Question299: Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?
Question300: Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?
Question301: What does the continual service improvement (CSI) approach enable a business to achieve?
Question302: Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
(1) How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
(2) What services to offer and to whom?
(3) What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
Question303: Event management, problem management, access management and request fulfillment are part of which stage of the service lifecycle?